From: Peter Constable (petercon@microsoft.com)
Date: Wed May 26 2004 - 15:13:58 CDT
> From: unicode-bounce@unicode.org [mailto:unicode-bounce@unicode.org]
On Behalf
> Of Dean Snyder
> >Negative proofs are kind of hard. I've been unable to find
> >anything which states that the ancient Jews considered
> >Phoenician and Hebrew to be the same script. If it were
> >easily found, I'd've found it already. In fairness, I've also
> >tried to find anything documenting that the ancient Jews
> >specifically considered Phoenician and Hebrew to be
> >separate scripts. Maybe it was such a "no-brainer" (either
> >way) for them that they never recorded their thoughts on
> >the subject. Or, maybe nothing survived. Or, maybe
> >nothing's been brought to light yet.
> >
> >Or, maybe somebody knows better?
>
> The evidence for this of which I am aware includes the contemporaneous
> use of both diascripts in ancient Judah
So, the question is whether contemporaneous use within a single
community suggests that they were viewed as the same or distinct. Either
is possible. If they were considered "font" variants, then you might
expect to see different documents using one or the other, or see
different elements within a single document using one or the other. But
if you see documents containing equivalent content repeated in each,
then that might well suggest they were viewed as distinct.
Peter
Peter Constable
Globalization Infrastructure and Font Technologies
Microsoft Windows Division
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