From: Christopher Fynn (cfynn@gmx.net)
Date: Mon Nov 08 2004 - 14:29:40 CST
Peter Kirk wrote:
> Not EXACTLY. There is a precise and clearly defined one-to-one mapping
> between Hebrew and Phoenician letters (at least if you ignore final
> forms).
There is a precise and clearly defined one to one mapping between most
of the Indic scripts (ISCII does precisely this) - yet the Indic scripts
are encoded separately.
- Chris
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