Re: f + halant + i = ?

From: Patrick Andries (pandries@iti.qc.ca)
Date: Tue Dec 21 1999 - 09:38:43 EST


----- Original Message -----
From: <peter_constable@sil.org>

> This begs a question I once wondered about: why
weren't the
> various viramas unified? No matter now, though,
whatever the
> answer is: it's too late to go back and change
things.
>

Could it be for compatibility reasons with ISCII-1988 ?

P. Andries
Dorval (Québec)



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