On Tue, 28 Mar 2017 21:10:58 +0900
"Martin J. Dürst" <duerst_at_it.aoyama.ac.jp> wrote:
(in Re: Standaridized variation sequences for the Desert alphabet?)
> On 2017/03/27 21:59, Michael Everson wrote:
> > Aa and Ɑɑ are used contrastively for different sounds in some
> > languages and in the IPA. Ɡɡ is not, to my knowledge, used
> > contrastively with Gg (except that ɡ can only mean /ɡ/, while
> > orthographic g can mean /ɡ/, /dʒ/, /x/ etc. But g vs ɡ is
> > reasonably analogous to 𐐦 and <lig>𐐃𐐆</lig> being used for /juː/.
> The contrastive use *in some languages or notations* (IPA) is the
> reason these are separately encoded.
I thought that reason is that at the time, the IPA proscribed the use of
the two-storey 'g' in phonetic notation. They have since relented.
This was disunification on the basis that one form simply looks wrong.
Which writing system contrasts the two?
Richard.
Received on Tue Mar 28 2017 - 11:15:17 CDT
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